Wednesday, June 18, 2008


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Thank you all and best of luck in your life!!

Thursday, June 5, 2008

CCNA Exploration - Chapter 11

Chapter 11 - Correct Answers

Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

--> UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

--> as the commands are entered

Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

--> enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
line console 0
password 7 020507550A

When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

--> Console

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

--> RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login

Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?

--> show interfaces

Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

--> privileged executive mode

--> enable mode

What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

--> Router(config)# hostname Fontana

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

--> Sydney(config-if)# ip address

--> Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

--> Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address represent?

--> IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?

--> NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address

Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

--> show startup-config

--> show running-config

Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

--> hot keys

--> context-sensitive

--> command syntax check

Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

--> The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.

--> The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

--> Ctrl-Shift-6

The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks and is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?

--> Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

--> Flash

On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?

--> console

A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

--> SSH

CCNA Exploration - Chapter 10

Chapter 10 - Correct Answers

Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

--> connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports

--> connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)

--> They segment broadcast domains.
--> They interconnect different network technologies.
--> Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?

--> hub
wireless access point

A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?

single-mode fiber
multimode fiber

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)

Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
* Five broadcast domains are present.
* Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
Four broadcast domains are present.
*Five networks are shown.
Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)

RJ 11
* DB 60
* Winchester 15 pin
DB 9
* smart serial
RJ 45

How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the network address with a subnet mask of

* 2046

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

--> host B would be successful, host A would fail

Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
* Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
* Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
* Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

wireless access point
* switch

Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?

* 3

What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?

* loss of signal strength as distance increases
time for a signal to reach its destination
leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
strengthening of a signal by a networking device

To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?

--> rollover cable

What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

* greater distances per cable run
lower installation cost
*limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
durable connections
*greater bandwidth potential
easily terminated

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?

Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

* roll-over
patch cable

Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?

AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
* console interface


What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)

--> direct configuration of the device

--> the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

--> the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port


21  What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)

-->the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

--> the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs



Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

* router

Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

--> 1

CCNA Exploration - Chapter 9

chapter 9 - correct answers

1 In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

--> Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2 Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

--> Physical layer

-->Data-link layer

3 Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

--> the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame

--> the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame

4 What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

--> addressing

--> error detection

--> frame delimiting

5 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

--> The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

6 What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

--> identifies the network layer protocol

--> makes the connection with the upper layers

--> insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7 What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

--> Logical Link Control sublayer

8 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

--> A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?

--> data field - network layer packet

10 Host A has an IP address of and a mask of Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.

A result of will be obtained.

11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

--> Collisions can decrease network performance.

12 Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

--> network access

13 What is the primary purpose of ARP?

--> resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

14 Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

--> No collisions will occur on this link.

15 Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

--> A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.

--> A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

--> copied into RAM during system startup

--> contains a 3 byte OUI

--> 6 bytes long

17 Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

--> minimizing of collisions

--> increase in the throughput of communications

18 What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

--> copper UTP

--> optical fiber

19 Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

--> BA

20 After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

--> any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires

CCNA 4 Exploration - Chapter 8

Chapter 8 - Correct Answers


Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

--> backbone cable

In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

Type F

When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
**when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router

With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
**the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Data Link

An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector

XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
**Cat6 UTP

What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
**Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

--> goodput

--> throughput

--> bandwidth


Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
**crossover cable
straight-through cable

In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP

Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
**It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
**It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

--> generally uses lasers as the light source

What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
**more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
**the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket

What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
**create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

CCNA 4 Exploration - Chapter 7

Chapter 7 - Correct Answers

Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

--> non-deterministic

--> less overhead

--> collisions exist

What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

--> facilitate the entry and exit of data on media

Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?


What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

--> Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.


Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?

--> 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0

What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

--> They are 48 binary bits in length.

--> They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

--> They are considered physical addresses.


Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

--> source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB

--> source IP - PC

What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

--> media sharing

--> logical topology

What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

--> is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

--> Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card

--> Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme

Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

--> Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.

--> Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

--> MAC

What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

--> Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD

--> defined as placement of data frames on the media

--> Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media

What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

--> The media access control protocol can be very simple.

What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

--> The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.

--> The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

What is a function of the data link layer?

--> provides for the exchange data over a common local media

Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

--> the geographic scope of the network

--> the physical layer implementation

--> the number of hosts to be interconnected

What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

--> support frame error detection

A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

--> physical topology

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

--> Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.

Additional Questions
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

--> Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

--> 8

CCNA 4 Exploration - Chapter 6

Chapter 6 - Correct Answers

1 How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

--> 32

2 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?


3 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?

--> IP address: subnet mask: default gateway:

4 Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.

--> /27

5 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

--> NAT is required for the host A network.

6 What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?


7 Given the IP address and subnet mask of, which of the following would describe this address?

--> This is a network address.

8 What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)

--> is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain

--> varies in length

--> is used to forward packets

9 What is the network address of the host /23 in binary?

--> 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000

10 A router interface has been assigned an IP address of with a mask of To which subnet does the IP address belong?


11 Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping on a PC?

--> Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.

12 What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

--> The router will discard the packet.

--> The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.

13 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)



14 Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

--> larger address space

--> data types and classes of service

--> authentication and encryption

15 Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?

--> binary ANDing

16 What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

--> expanded addressing capabilities

17 Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)




18 Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

--> Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.

--> IP address can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

19 Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

--> /26

--> /26

--> /27

20 What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?

--> a network

21 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

--> The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

22 Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)

--> servers

--> network printers

--> routers

Wednesday, June 4, 2008

CCNA 4 Exploration - Chapter 5

CHAPTER 5 - Correct Answers

In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?

--> destination network address

What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

--> source and destination IP address

In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

--> The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.

Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

--> *time-to-live

Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?

--> network portion

Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the network?


If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

--> The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

What is the purpose of a default gateway?

--> identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

--> static

When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)

--> The router discards the packet.

--> The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)

--> purpose

--> geographic location

--> ownership

What is a component of a routing table entry?

--> the next-hop address

Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)

--> router

--> firewall

What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)

--> Performance degradation

--> security issues

--> host identification

Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?

--> 4

Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)

--> If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.

--> If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.

--> If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

--> Replace S2 with a router.

-->Subnet the /24 network.

Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)

--> is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the network to the network.

--> is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the network to the network.

What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

--> provide routers with up-to-date routing tables

--> consume bandwidth to exchange route information

What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

--> A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA 4 Exploration - Chapter 4

Chapter 4 - Correct Answers

Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)

--> identifies the communicating applications
--> identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

--> A termination request has been sent to
--> Communication with is using HTTP Secure.

Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)

--> This contains a Telnet request.
--> This is a TCP header.

With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?

--> 0 to 1023

Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

--> to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application

Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?

--> transport

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?

--> reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged

Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?

--> to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data

Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)

--> identifies the communicating applications
--> identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?

--> session establishment

What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?

--> source port

What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)

--> low overhead
--> connectionless

What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?

--> window size

Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?

--> UDP

Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?

--> source and destination

Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?

--> flow control
--> session establishment
--> numbering and sequencing

During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?

--> The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.

Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

--> minimal delays in data delivery

After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?

--> 80

Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?

--> TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.

Assesment item Q:

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

--> The local host is using three client sessions.

--> The local host is using web sessions to a remote server.

100% Result Guranted

CCNA 4 Exploration - Chapter 2

CHAPTER 2 - Correct Answers

Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)

--> determine pathways for data
--> retime and retransmit data signals
--> manage data flows

Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)

--> define the structure of layer specific PDU's
--> outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
--> require layer dependent encapsulations

What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)

--> identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
--> ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
--> enables the reassembly of complete messages

What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?

--> supports error detection

Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)

--> Physical
--> Data Link

What is a PDU?

--> a layer specific encapsulation

Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

--> originate data flow

Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"

--> an end device

Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

--> Network B -- WAN
--> Network C -- LAN
--> Network A -- LAN

Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)

--> A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
--> The network is administered by a single organization.
--> A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.

Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?

--> multiplexing

What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?

--> to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

What device is considered an intermediary device?

--> Switch

Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B (GREEN AREA)?

--> intermediary

Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

--> LAN

Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

--> network

What can be identified by examining the network layer header?

--> the destination host address

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

--> E, F, H, I, J

During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?

--> The physical address is added.

What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

--> detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it

What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?

--> application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

100% Result Granted!!

Tuesday, June 3, 2008

CCNA 4 Exploration - Chapter 3

CHAPTER 3 - Correct Answers

What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?

--> FTP

What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)

--> Application

--> Services

A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)

--> centralized administration

--> security is easier to enforce

What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?

--> Used by the server to resolve names

What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?

--> DNS

What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

--> DNS

--> SMTP

--> POP

What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)

--> acts as both a client and server within the same communication

--> hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files

--> can be used in client-server networks

Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)

--> HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client

--> Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)

--> MTA

--> SMTP

As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?

--> Does not support encryption

Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)

--> receives email from the client's MUA

--> passes email to the MDA for final delivery

--> uses SMTP to route email between servers

Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)

--> HTTP


A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)

--> Security is difficult to enforce.

--> A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?

--> Application

Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?

--> 80

What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

--> Decentralized resources

--> Resource sharing without a dedicated server

What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks? (Be careful its asking in Microsoft network)

--> SMB

What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)

--> initiate data exchanges

--> may upload data to servers

What is the role of the OSI application layer?

--> provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network

How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?

--> uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

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