CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 5

Chapter 5 - Module Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?

--> Router1(config-router)# no network 192.168.10.0



2. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?

--> 3



3. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?

--> RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.



4. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?

--> 155 seconds



5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?

--> ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1



6. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)

--> uses hop count as a metric

--> considers a metric of 16 as infinity

--> calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm



7. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?


RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0



8. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?

--> 30




9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?

--> The default-information originate command has been entered on A.



10. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?

--> routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router



11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?

--> All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.



12. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).

--> It is a distance vector routing protocol.

--> The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.



13. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?

--> RouterB(config)# no router rip



14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).

--> R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]

--> R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]



15. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?

--> debug ip rip



16. Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?

--> There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.



17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?

--> 10.0.0.0/8



18. Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?

--> RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.



19. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?

--> All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.



20. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?

--> only the gateway router

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 4

Chapter 4 - Module Answer

1. Which event will cause a triggered update?

--> a route is installed in the routing table

2. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?

--> They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

3. What does the RIP holddown timer do?

--> instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).

--> updates are broadcast at regular intervals

--> broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?

--> will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

6. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)

--> EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.

--> EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

7. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?

--> It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

8. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)

--> RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.

--> Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

9. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?

--> Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?

--> route poisoning

11. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?

--> limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

12. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)

--> routing loops

--> inconsistent traffic forwarding

--> inconsistent routing table entries

13. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?

--> The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

14. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)

--> EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.

--> EIGRP updates are partial.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?

--> The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

16. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).

--> RIPv1

--> EIGRP

--> RIPv2

17. What is a routing loop?

--> a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

18. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)

--> inconsistent routing tables

--> incorrectly configured static routes

19. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?

--> 16

20. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?

--> adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route

21. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?

--> 3

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 3

Chapter 3 - Module Answer

1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

--> Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.

--> Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?

--> R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

--> sends subnet mask information in routing updates

--> allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?

--> show ip route

5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?

--> EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)

--> the network is using a hub and spoke topology

--> the network is using a flat design

7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

---> It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

--> hey send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?

--> shortest-path first calculations

10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?

--> Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged

--> The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)

--> EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.

--> OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).

--> increased security

--> the administrator maintains control over routing

14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?

--> The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown

--> A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?

--> The administrative distance of this route is 1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?

--> The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?

--> The cost for this link has a value of 129.

19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?

--> OSPF can be used between the routers.

20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?

--> 3

21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?

--> The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

22 When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?

best metric 

lowest hop count 

greatest available bandwidth 

-- > lowest administrative distance 

lowest cost

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CCNA 2 V.4 Exploration - Chapter 2

Chapter 2 - Module Answer

1. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)

--> platform
--> holdtime
--> local interface

2. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?

--> In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.


3. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?

--> No clock rate has been set.

4. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?

--> administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

--> A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
--> A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

6. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?

--> R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?

--> ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

8. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?

--> 172.16.0.0/21

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

--> It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

10. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).

--> a modem
--> a CSU/DSU device

11. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?

--> encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

12. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?

--> Interface IP address

13. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

--> By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.


14. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)

--> It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
--> It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

15. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)

--> ping
--> traceroute
--> show ip route


16. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?

--> The route is removed from the table.

17. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?

--> 192.1.1.0/25

18. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?

--> Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

19. A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)

--> The destination network no longer exists.
--> A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?

--> The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?

--> WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

22. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)

--> A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
--> B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

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CCNA 2. V.4 Exploration - Chapter 1

Chapter 1 - Module Answers

---

1. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?

--> The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?

--> The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

--> The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.

--> An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)

--> The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.

--> The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.

5. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

--> VTY interface

--> console interface

--> privileged EXEC mode

6. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)

--> ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.

--> Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

7. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?

--> Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

8. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)

--> packet switching

--> segmentation of broadcast domains

--> selection of best path based on logical addressing

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)

--> If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

--> If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

10. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

--> Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

--> Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

--> Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?

--> The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)

--> destination IP address: 192.168.10.134

--> destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

13. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login

--> sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

14. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?

--> load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

15. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)

--> decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header

--> uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table

--> encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

16. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?

--> cross-over

17. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)

--> Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.

--> Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

18. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)

--> the last restart method

--> the configuration register settings

--> the location from where the IOS loaded

19. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)

--> 1

--> 4

20. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)

--> TFTP server

--> Flash memory

21. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?

--> Router1# copy running-config startup-config

22. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?

--> NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

23. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?

--> the Layer 2 source and destination address

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CCNA 2 { Exploration } - Module Answers

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CCNA 1 - Exam 640 - 802

Final Exam Answer [CCNA 1 - EXPLORATION]

1. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

--> Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.


2. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

--> A, B, D, G

3. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

--> only computer D


4. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

--> enable secret

5. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

--> TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

--> TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

--> TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.


6. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

--> 100 Base-FX

--> 1000 Base LX


7. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

--> 192.168.254.1


8. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients.
Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

--> 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

9. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

--> address translation

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

--> issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1


11. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

--> 172.16.4.63 /26

--> 172.16.4.191 /26

--> 172.16.4.95 /27


12. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

--> A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

--> All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

--> After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

13. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

--> NVRAM

14. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

--> router


15. Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

--> transport


16. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)

--> The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
--> Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

17. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

--> Switch-6J#


18. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

--> 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0

19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

--> when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

--> upper-layer connection-oriented protocols


21. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most
secure?

--> enable secret


22. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?

--> a terminal emulation program


23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)

-->The connection type is called a VTY session.

--> The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.


24. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

--> service port number


25. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)

--> A single broadcast domain is present

--> Five collision domains exist.


26. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

--> IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17


27. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data
given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)


--> segment1

--> segment3

--> segment4


28. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)

--> uses a flat structure

--> uniquely identifies each host

--> contains a network portion


29. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?


--> The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.



30. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)


--> The destination port indicates a Telnet session.

--> The return segment will contain a source port of 23.



31. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?


--> 198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com


32. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?


--> two applications communicating the data



33. Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)


--> The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.

--> The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.


34. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?


--> 3



35. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?


--> The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.



36. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

--> Connection 1 - straight-through cable , Connection 2 - crossover cable , Connection 3 - straight-through cable



37. Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

--> The host's primary domain name server.



38. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)


--> The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.

--> The data listed is associated with the transport layer.


39. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

--> 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

--> 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

--> 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255



40. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)


--> physical addressing

--> media access control



41. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

--> 0 to 1023


42. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?


--> 255.255.254.0



43. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?


--> Athens


44. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?


--> Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75


45. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?


--> star


46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?


--> subnet mask incorrectly entered



47. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)


--> 192.168.18.49

--> 192.168.18.52

-->192.168.18.59



48. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)



--> The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.

--> The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.

--> The prefix of the computer address is /27.



49. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

--> leaving Dallas


50. WWhich OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?





--> transport layer

The result should be above 85%

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